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| Sil the Shill | Posted: Jun 03, 2010 - 00:00 |
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 Level: 9 CS Original | I've heard, and I believe read somewhere on this site (though I can't remember where) that when the IMF grants loans to a country that one of the conditions is that the country must privatize the water industry. Now this isn't really a CT, but I'm sure conspiracy theorists do have plenty to say on it... so what's the real reason the IMF does this? Do the water companies contribute to the loans in anyway or what? | |||||
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| Edward L Winston | Posted: Jun 03, 2010 - 00:19 |
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 President Dwayne Elizondo Mountain Dew Herbert Camacho: porn star and five-time ultimate smackdown wrestling champion! Level: 150 CS Original | The idea is basically shock therapy: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shock_therapy_(economics) The irony of course many of the countries that are supporting members of the IMF do not have privatized water, but the US does (except in some areas). Further, it's privatizing of basically all major industries, it's up to the government and the private company(s) to work out how that works, for example there are two known situations where even rain water was privatized. | |||||
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